Was the question of the Second Amendment creating a personal right itself even resolved at that time? And if so, was the incorporation of that right ever before SCOTUS prior to Heller?
That’s a good question. I suspect that because the extent of the incorporation doctrine was unresolved, the states just gradually infringed more and more, and then we got the NFA and then the GCA. By 1968, no one in the elite took the 2nd Amendment seriously anymore and we had become habituated to despotism via Roosevelt and the national security state during and following WWII. So the Federal courts did nothing.