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To: Leaning Right
But as I see it, you are only justified in going to war when another country has first committed a warlike activity against you. That is a high standard, I know.

True. Hitler had legitimate gripes against the Versailles Treaty, but up until the invasion of Poland, nobody attacked Germany.

28 posted on 02/28/2022 9:28:10 AM PST by dfwgator (Endut! Hoch Hech!)
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To: dfwgator

Almost as soon as he took power, Hitler began to arm-up in violation of the Treaty of Versailles. But that was not a warlike activity. And so he was left alone, as he probably should have been.

Then in 1936 Hitler ordered the remilitarization of the Rhineland. German troops entered what was supposed to be kind of a neutral zone militarily. That was also a violation of the Treaty of Versailles. But unlike with the first example, in my opinion this was a warlike activity, and should have been met with force. Pity that it wasn’t.

Ain’t 20-20 hindsight great?


33 posted on 02/28/2022 9:40:58 AM PST by Leaning Right (The steal is real.)
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