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To: SeekAndFind
"we have determined that there is insufficient evidence to prove criminal intent on the part of the person who discarded the ballots"

Read that again ... "The person who discarded the ballots

Isn't that a tacit confession that a crime was committed? It just calls into question the INTENT. That's like the difference between Murder 1 and Negligent Homicide. A CRIME was still committed.

6 posted on 01/16/2021 6:12:11 PM PST by gtwizard (Income Inequality is called INCENTIVE!)
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To: gtwizard

RE: Read that again ... “The person who discarded the ballots

Let’s set the intent of the person aside... two questions:

1) Were the discarded ballot LEGAL or not?

2) If legal, were they in sufficient numbers to affect the PA election results?

These are the two relevant questions. We can talk about the intent of the person responsible later.


11 posted on 01/16/2021 6:14:59 PM PST by SeekAndFind
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To: gtwizard

so apparently it woudl be perfectly legal for all red states to throw out liberal ballots because there would be no ‘criminal intent’ according to this finding i guess?


67 posted on 01/16/2021 9:11:23 PM PST by Bob434
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To: gtwizard

So - A criminal act is no longer prosecutable if you can’t prove the person had criminal intent?

More leftist B.S. Cover up.


70 posted on 01/16/2021 10:45:24 PM PST by Vlad The Inhaler (Rep. Matt Gaetz - Inside the chest of every digital woketopian beats the heart of an online tyrant)
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