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To: street_lawyer

OK, The question must be asked because the issue keeps being brought up by the liberal wing of the court everytime a similar lawsuit is filed. Does Texas have any standing as to the internal affairs of these 4 other states?


7 posted on 12/08/2020 9:12:52 AM PST by SeekAndFind
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To: SeekAndFind

There is absolutely no doubt that SCOTUS has jurisdiction to here the case, the only sticky issue is whether Texas has the right to challenge the actions taken by the defendants. Does Texas have “standing.” Quotes will be in italics to make it easier for readers to know when something is being quoted from the complaint.

President and the Vice President of the United States are the only elected officials who represent all the voters in the Nation. Voters who cast lawful ballots cannot have their votes diminished by states that administered their 2020 presidential elections in a manner where it is impossible to distinguish a lawful ballot from an unlawful ballot. Sounds like a good argument. To have standing a party must be likely to be negatively affected by a law. Establishing standing to challenge an unconstitutional law is much easier than challenging illegal action by state actors, but the argument makes the point that Texas voters who wanted Trump to win were defrauded and someone must do something about it or there is no point to having the right to vote!

This Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction over this action because it is a “controvers[y] between two or more States” under Article III, § 2, cl. 2 of the U.S. Constitution and 28 U.S.C. § 1251(a) (2018).


10 posted on 12/08/2020 9:14:42 AM PST by street_lawyer
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To: SeekAndFind

“Does Texas have any standing as to the internal affairs of these 4 other states?”

Yes because the lawful votes of Texas citizens are diminished when other states allow illegal aliens, felons, repeat voters, and purely manufactured ballots to be counted.

It is a 14th Amendment violation because Texans are not receiving equal protection for their votes.


12 posted on 12/08/2020 9:15:59 AM PST by MeganC (There is nothing feminine about feminism. )
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To: SeekAndFind

Yes, because it’s citizens are being disenfranchised by the actions of the other states.


22 posted on 12/08/2020 9:33:45 AM PST by MrChips ("To wisdom belongs the apprehension of eternal things." - St. Augustine I don’t think we need one,)
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To: SeekAndFind

It is an Equal Protection argument. Texas played by the constitutional rules and the defendant states did not. No state should be forced to accept a presidential election outcome arrived at in violation of the U.S. Constitution.

Every American voter and every American state complying with the constitutional rules is disenfranchised by the rogue states.


24 posted on 12/08/2020 9:41:32 AM PST by Gnome1949
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To: SeekAndFind

Texas have any standing as to the internal affairs of these 4 other states?

I think so. It is a national election. The only court that can hear a case by a State against three other states in SCOTUS. Texas represents all it’s voters who chose Trump and if a constitutional violation occurred that diluted their votes, meaning their choice for President was wrongfully taken. .....


31 posted on 12/08/2020 5:08:19 PM PST by street_lawyer
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