Appreciate your response.
I guess I was under the misguided notion that since SCOTUS stepped in for FL 2000 (a single state, why a federal issue?), under the 14th (”No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States...”) that this would be entirely applicable in a situation where we have multiple states (thus, a federal issue?) in question. If FL could not guarantee its citizens equal protection in 2000, why does this not apply now across state lines? Furthermore, it’d seem that voting by absentee ballots vs. mail-ins vs. in person with varying degrees of authentication (to the extent any exists) across a single state would be violations of the 14th.
Just saying; thanks again.
If FL could not guarantee its citizens equal protection in 2000, why does this not apply now across state lines