I do not understand what the FDA did or why.
The FDA does not “approve” the off label use of drugs, because no approval for this is required.
The FDA approved hydroxychloroquine in 1955. No further approval was required, and, in fact, asking the FDA to “approve” something which did not require their approval increases their bureaucratic standing and their power for all future cases.
The FDA COULD give hydroxychloroquine an “indication” for treatment of SARS-CoV-2, but they can’t do that now because the rules to do that are in statute which would have to be changed by Congress.
The language seemed a bit odd to me, glad it’s not just me.
BTW, you’ve probably already seen it, but there’s a link to the FDA’s announcement in my #18 in this thread.