BS.
What’s the criteria? Victim has to be black and perps have to be white?
I think that’s about the size of it. It is part of the Holder Doctrine.
Yeah I cannot help but think if the role was reversed when Obama was in office. I think we would never hear the end of it in the media.
You nailed it.
Blacks don't have hate - they are all peace and love, even while they are beating you (whitie) to death.
You nailed it. Reverse the races in the attack and it would be a hate crime and the media would be screaming from the roof tops.
It is cultural appropriation for a white heterosexual male to claim to be the target of a hate crime.
Under Florida law, an expression of racial animosity during the attack could make it a hate crime, but political animosity would not.
I’m guessing the criteria was what the prosecutor thought he could get a conviction on without jury nullification from a jury pool that is over 1/3rd black.
Just being a realist about this.
Probably.
You answered your own question.
Yes.
775.085 Evidencing prejudice while committing offense; reclassification.— (1)(a) The penalty for any felony or misdemeanor shall be reclassified as provided in this subsection if the commission of such felony or misdemeanor evidences prejudice based on the race, color, ancestry, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, national origin, homeless status, or advanced age of the victim:
Beating up somebody because of their political views is not included as a hate crime, and somehow liberal DAs rarely enhance charges where the victim is white, particularly if the victim is a young white heterosexual male.
Bing bing bing, We have a WINNER!!!