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Assignment asks middle schoolers 'How many slaves would equal 4 white people?'
WSOCtv.com ^ | 12/11/2019 | WSOCtv.com

Posted on 12/11/2019 7:41:18 AM PST by ladyjane

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To: ladyjane

How many african natives did it take to capture their fellow countryman and sell them into slavery?


121 posted on 12/11/2019 3:28:30 PM PST by minnesota_bound (homeless guy. He just has more money....)
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To: metmom

White people also used to be slaves so what’s the point of this stupid question?


122 posted on 12/11/2019 3:38:58 PM PST by MeganC (There is nothing feminine about feminism.)
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To: MeganC

My ancestors basically were. The landownners in the Ukraine used to own everything and the people who lives on the land owned nothing. The landowner gave them everything they needed but they didn’t own a thing themselves. It was all owned by someone else.

You worked for them or starved.


123 posted on 12/11/2019 3:51:10 PM PST by metmom ( ...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: Balding_Eagle
It was a compromise with the Democrats that resulted in slaves only being counted as 3/5 of a person. The Republicans wanted them to be counted as a full person like anyone else.

There were no Republicans OR Democrats at the time of the 3/5 compromise.

The anti-slavery faction didn't want slaves to count AT ALL, since counting them would INCREASE representation of states where slavery was legal.

The slave states wanted to COUNT their slaves, FOR THE PURPOSE of increasing their representation to make the House of Representatives permanently pro-slavery once 1808 arrived and Congress would have the power to ban the slave trade.

The compromise was to count the number of slaves x 3/5, so the slave states would have SOME increase in representation but not as much as they wanted.

The 3/5 compromise was a DEFEAT for the slave states.

124 posted on 12/11/2019 3:58:21 PM PST by Jim Noble (There is nothing racist in stating plainly what most people already know)
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To: DiogenesLamp

Not sure Massachusetts was really a slave free state. There were slaves there then. They were called something else in the census


125 posted on 12/11/2019 4:23:14 PM PST by ladyjane
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To: ladyjane
Not sure Massachusetts was really a slave free state. There were slaves there then. They were called something else in the census

There were very likely slaves there for years after 1783, but officially and so far as the government was concerned, they had abolished it. Actually, their courts abolished it for them by misrepresenting the meaning of their state constitution.

As usual, liberal courts deliberately misinterpret constitutional law to mean what they want it to mean.

In any case, Massachusetts was "officially" a free state.

126 posted on 12/11/2019 4:34:44 PM PST by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no oither sovereignty.")
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To: Balding_Eagle

“It was a compromise with the Democrats that resulted in slaves only being counted as 3/5 of a person.

The Republicans wanted them to be counted as a full person like anyone else.

That is an important part that should have been included in the lesson.”

Democrats haven’t changed much. They always want to skew who votes and who doesn’t.


127 posted on 12/11/2019 4:44:34 PM PST by HereInTheHeartland (I have no incriminating evidence on the Clintons)
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