True. Someone did a study of “minorities” in majority white countries, some of which practiced slavery (the US) and many who did not and found that in every country, “minorities” had higher criminal rates. This puts the lie to the Marxist sham that “minority” crime is due to the legacy of slavery, or discrimination or poverty, as Northern European countries, with high welfare allowances, can hardly be said to be impoverished.
No, it does not. And by the way, what does Marx have to do with it?