>>>was there ever an ‘official’ (you know, the lie that the dems tell to cover up the real reason) reason given for demanding that the prosecutor be fired?
The argument is that the U.S. was not alone in pressuring Ukraine to fire Shokin.
By late fall of 2015, the EU and the United States joined the chorus of those seeking Mr. Shokin’s removal as the start of an overall reform of the Procurator General’s Office.
A month prior to Biden’s visit, the International Monetary Fund managing director Christine Lagarde threatened to withhold $40 billion unless Ukraine undertook “a substantial new effort” to fight corruption after the country’s economic minister and his team resigned to protest government corruption.
That same month, a “reform-minded deputy prosecutor resigned, complaining that his efforts to address government corruption had been consistently stymied by his own prosecutor general, Viktor Shokin,
Bloomberg reported in May, a Ukrainian official familiar with the corruption push said that no U.S. officials pressured anyone to close cases that might have involved Biden’s son. And Biden’s own focus on corruption in Ukraine came one to two years after Ukraine prosecutors had already dropped the case Trump and Giuliani are so interested in.
https://www.bloomberg.com/opinion
Adam Entous, a New Yorker reporter, drew the same conclusion, noting that “there is no credible evidence that Biden” did anything untoward.
News reports out this morning on Google News: Ukraine will likely reopen this.
Just because this prosecutor was fired doesn’t mean it should have been a closed case thereafter.
And nothing justifies Biden committing blackmail.
He too will have to be investigated.
That’s what I was looking for...an ‘official’ explanation on how it will be justified. Thanks.