I believe the Federal Courts have ruled it legal, and large majorities of people agree with it. That said, I agree with you and I am more of an absolutist on this question. But check your logic because this could mean you are saying that even “prohibited people” should not be prohibited. Where does it say that a criminal loses his/her right to self defense?
With this push to restore (voting) rights to criminals, why one and not the other?
I have always believed that when a convicted criminal completes his sentence (including parole, probation, fines, costs,etc.) ALL Constitutional rights should be restored.