Why would you only count men? When this country was founded, the founding fathers could not complete the job they wanted to do, which was the emancipation of slaves and the suffrage of women, so compromises were made because of because of the political reality of slave holders and some misogynistic prejudiced arrogant conceited white men well satisfied with the status quo. Indeed, in colonial times women of property, like men of property, could and did vote! Furthermore, early in our history, a few women did run for president. Their names were included on the ballot, and they did receive votes which were counted.
Sadly, it took another 200 years to complete the vision of our noble founding fathers who recognized slaves and women as human beings who should enjoy the freedoms that God intended all to have.
By the way, in the English language, when used in general, as in law, “he” is meant to include men and women. If law was to meant to refer to women only, “she” is used. That is one of my concerns about all of this cis-gender nonsense, it muddies the language. For instance, murder is just illegal for a women to commit as it is for a man, and I doubt murderous women could argue successfully that the law does not apply them. On the other hand, for example, there are labor laws that apply only to women, and the law specifically states “she” and not “he.”
because the language specifically calls for “male citizens”