“God marked the days before he placed the sun. Therefore his days are NOT equivalent to our solar days.”
That’s called a “non-sequitur”.
If “evening and morning” are not the same as solar days, then why is the exact same formula used after the sun and moon are in place to describe each day? Why even use that verbiage in the first place, if not to tell us specifically that these were equivalent to solar days?
There is really only one explanation that makes any sense at all.
” then why is the exact same formula used after the sun and moon are in place to describe each day? “
Because the are the same. The solar day was invented by man, not God.