Name one instance of a man in the Bible sentenced to death for raping a woman who was not another man's wife.
And yes, they were sold. This from biblestudytools.com:
The practice of taking concubines as "wife" was used to provide a male heir for a barren wife (cf. Gen. 16, 35, 36). In addition, the practice provided a social safety net for poor families who could sell their daughters in dire times ( Exod 21:7-10 ; Judges 19:1 ). It seems plausible to suggest that the practice of taking concubines was perpetuated to meet the sexual desires of the males and/or to cement political alliances between nations.
David H. Engelhart
Raping Dinah didn’t work out real well for Shechem, or his relatives.
The law said they were to be out to death for rape. That is biblical law. Unequivocally.
One could sell their family with oneself into indentured servitude (slavery) IN THAT SENSE a man could sell his child(ren) with himself . They had all the protections against harm and death and raping them was not allowed. The family was not separated.
Concubinage was PRACTICED by some. It was never prescribed nor endorsed. Indeed the bad results of it are frequently mentioned.