[jjotto]

Depending on the prosecutor, he could be charged. ‘General’ consent isn’t enough, specific consent at the time is required. But the prosecutor might pass, or a judge could dismiss based on specific state law, or a jury could acquit.

Here’s a vaguely similar case:

https://wcfcourier.com/news/local/crime-and-courts/jury-iowa-man-not-guilty-of-abusing-wife-who-had/article_b59d713e-176d-5f2b-80f5-d9b09e6f0bc1.html

[Drew68]

Here’s a vaguely similar case:

Thanks. I was thinking of that exact case.