True.
“Neither rights are stronger than the other.”
That implies a stalemate in a conflict of rights. And it’s not always true. The owner’s rights may be stronger than the lady’s free speech right to shout partisan political statements from a window when the owner doesn’t want her to, but it is not stronger than her free speech right to say “No” to the owner’s request for sexual favors, nor is it stronger than her liberty right to leave the premises if the owner wants to hold her there.
“Landlords MUST bind tenants under a suitable lease. Tenants must seek clarification up front.”
“Must” might depend on local law, but they should in order to avoid problems. “Because this particular case was not mitigated under a suitable lease, the case must be referred to the court for resolution.”
That’s how we handle conflicts of and disagreements over rights.
That implies a stalemate in a conflict of rights. And it’s not always true. The owner’s rights may be stronger than the lady’s free speech right to shout partisan political statements from a window when the owner doesn’t want her to, but it is not stronger than her free speech right to say “No” to the owner’s request for sexual favors, nor is it stronger than her liberty right to leave the premises if the owner wants to hold her there.
Nobody's rights are EVER stronger than another's. The case you site for denying sexual advances or retaining someone against their will are not matters of free speech.
...Must” might depend on local law, but they should in order to avoid problems...
True, I meant "must" as only an idiot wouldn't. And, true All conflicts regarding conflict of rights are supposed to be handled in court
...I don’t know where you got that quote ("only Congress can make laws, and Congress may not delegate")...
This stems from Article I, section 1: All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives. This means "Congress, and only Congress, has the power to make laws. And the Congress is a bicameral legislative body—that is, it's divided into two chambers, the House and the Senate." [http://www.annenbergclassroom.org/page/article-i-section-1]
...It’s establishment as the US Constitution was an establishment of law because the US Constitution is law. It says so itself in Article VI:...
You are just so very badly mistaken to think this document established law for anyone except the government itself. This a a very fundamental principle of out Nation.
...I wonder what that has to do with your question “How could the Constitution Committee itself violate that rule?”? ...
See the bit about only Congress can make laws
...I disagree that the Bill of Rights is only “a set of rules which were supposed to prevent the (Federal) government from passing certain classes of laws.”...
NO Constitutional scholar agrees with you.