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*sigh* — Ok, here's the question: what does the application of a prohibition/limitation of “congress” to an entity which does not have a “Congress” actually do?

If you accept that such an application has some effect, then you are agreeing that there is some “magical change” that happens to the text in this ‘incorporation’... this alteration is amending the amendment, and therefore the entity applying this change [the Judiciary] is therefore amending the very Constitution [in this case the First Amendment].

Now, where exactly are the courts legitimate given the authority to alter the Constitution?