“The Bill of Rights was to protect the inalienable rights of all citizens of the USA”
So, in your opinion, children born to two slaves in one of the States after 1789 were citizens of the United States even though they were not citizens of, say, Alabama, and they had inalienable rights the Constitution as amended was intended to protect?
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Yes, That's almost correct. It's why we ended fighting the Civil War? It's also why the Constitution didn't directly address slavery. They couldn't agree on the status of "slaves" or "Negros". I'm not sure where you are confused.
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Do I need to?