this does not seem as airtight as suggested.
i am not convinced that the FOIA officer has such power to make a unilateral determination.
from there, i am not certain about the circumstances of the classification itself.
looking aside for a moment, i did not see anything else on the web about this (fd: i quickly used only a google news search). if it is valid, then it seems to me that other news outlets would be picking this story up... which if any news outlets are picking it up?
As we've seen, nothing is airtight when the political class is involved. Laws that appear clear, are ignored or rewritten. 'Intent' becomes a standard that is irrelevant in cases where it's OBVIOUS what the intent was. If there's no will for the powerful to put away the powerful, look for a ridiculous exculpatory explanation and get-out-of-jail-free card to be handed-out.
It's just too 'nuanced' for us plebes to understand...