Ok, quick history
The land in question was acquired by the US Government via the treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo 1848. Later the US Territory of Nevada was created and supervised by the US Government. Nevada was formed as a state in 1854 and their state constitution reads, in part:
“Third. That the people inhabiting said territory do agree and declare, that they forever disclaim all right and title to the unappropriated public lands lying within said territory, and that the same shall be and remain at the sole and entire disposition of the United States; and that lands belonging to citizens of the United States, residing without the said state, shall never be taxed higher than the land belonging to the residents thereof; and that no taxes shall be imposed by said state on lands or property therein belonging to, or which may hereafter be purchased by, the United States, unless otherwise provided by the congress of the United States.”
The owner is the US Government that is not in dispute. Where the author of that article is incorrect is his assertion that the US government is required to turn unappropriated public lands lying within said territory over to the state - especially when the state agrees to forego any such claim.
I’m actually aware of this “history”, and of the provision in the Nevada constitution.
Your argument falls apart in identifying where in the U.S. Constitution, the power to violate same is ceded to the state of Nevada.
Within state boundaries the U.S. Constitution grants no authority to retain acreage for unenumerated purposes, such as land for grazing, mineral development, agriculture, forests, or parks.