“Slavery continued in the Union until banned by the 13th amendment December 6, 1865. Six months after slavery had been abolished in the South. If the Union was fighting to end slavery, don’t you think they would have ended it in their own States first?” That was because the Federal Government had no Constitutional means to end slavery in any state were it was legal per Scott V. Sanford. Lincoln worked quite hard to get Missouri, Kentucky, Maryland and Delaware to end the institution, but he could not force them to end slavery.
So what was the "constitutional means" by which it was ended in the South? Presumably if Lincoln had the power to end slavery, he also had the power to create slavery.
So did Lincoln have the power to enslave the "rebels"? Could he put chains on these people and make them work the cotton fields?
From whence came his constitutional power to end what was a legal practice and one that was explicitly protected by the US Constitution? Where did this man get such power?
From what clause of the constitution did his power to do this emanate?
Lincoln worked quite hard to get Missouri, Kentucky, Maryland and Delaware to end the institution, but he could not force them to end slavery.
He bribed them and threatened them. He also deliberately refused to allow the Southern states to vote against this amendment. They were required to vote "yes" for this amendment because they had guns pointed at their heads.
This was a coerced amendment that did not accurately represent the free will of the citizens of those states at this time.
It was but one more example of extra constitutional dictatorial powers being used by a man that controlled the Armies of the North.
So you are going to talk to me about the US Constitution? Really?