Why is this not common knowledge? If true, it needs to be brought to SCOTUS under one of the Civil Rights Acts. How does a consent decree in a single state cover a Federal election?
It happened over 30 years ago and was never publicized?
Sounds like the recourse is to rename the GOP or have a candidate challenge in their own name. Alternatively, thumb their nose at the decree and bring suit, anyway. If this was reversed, the DNC would have long ago found ways around it.
I’ve seen this referred to several times over the years. I believe it to be true.