The role of the court was “politicized” when it was written into the constitution as a coequal branch of government.
This was an achilles heel. A tie breaker would have been a good idea like the Bork Amendment.
Or not.
Unless you and I and everyone else have different grasp of what "politicize" means.
The old "depends of what the definition of"is" is...
Which I reject.
How can it mean anything other than the Constitutional assumption, at the time it was written, that it would function immune from political pressure or threats of any nature.
If not, then the States bought a pig in a poke.
Not damned likely!
That baby was the result of 16 years of labor!
All the state debates, 85 separate discussions/analyses/arguments via the Federalist Papers? And it's still not clear?
That’s a cool idea: No federal judiciary. No court above each State Supreme Court.
This should be on the agenda of the Article V Convention!