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To: Kaslin

In 2012, Barack Obama won the popular vote by almost 5-million votes — nearly 4% of the votes cast for Obama or Romney. And, yet, a switch of under 214,800 votes in Ohio, New Hampshire, Florida, and Virginia would have put Romney in White House. Thus a razor-thin 0.2% of voters determined the outcome of a race Obama won by nearly 5,000,000 popular votes. It was a virtual “tie race,” even though Obama won it by 4% of the popular vote.”

Is this really correct?

A swing of a total of 214,800 votes in 4 (!) states would have made Romney win? As in 4 states together, not 218K in EACH?

Is that really correct?

If so...that is incredible.


90 posted on 08/14/2016 2:08:42 PM PDT by ConservativeDude
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To: ConservativeDude

yes, because NY and CA accounted for most of the popular vote margin.... and Shrillary may not even win NY in 2016! (I can hope).... but leave aside all of those millions of votes in CA and NY, and the margins in the handful of key “swing” states were very very close.


94 posted on 08/14/2016 7:46:08 PM PDT by Enchante (Hillary's new campaign slogan: "Guilty as hell, free as a bird!! Laws are for peasants!")
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To: ConservativeDude

It is true. And worse consider how many of those 280,000 came from precincts in PA and Ohio that vote 110% and 0% GOP? With the fraud in VA. Zero’s second election was fraud and anyone willing to see it knows.


105 posted on 08/15/2016 5:12:01 AM PDT by wastoute (Government cannot redistribute wealth. Government can only redistribute poverty.)
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