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To: eyeamok

So based on this, how did the US Supreme Court intervene in 2000 election in Florida?


10 posted on 08/10/2016 12:18:54 PM PDT by chaosagent (Remember, no matter how you slice it, forbidden fruit still tastes the sweetest!)
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To: chaosagent

Because it is not a lower federal court.


16 posted on 08/10/2016 12:34:35 PM PDT by xzins ( Free Republic Gives YOU a voice heard around the globe. Support the Freepathon!)
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To: chaosagent

So based on this, how did the US Supreme Court intervene in 2000 election in Florida?

The case was brought before them in Original Jurisdiction by the Gore Gang. In that case the USSC has the Authority, but Only because they took the case as filed by the Gore Gang.

In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction.


24 posted on 08/10/2016 1:12:24 PM PDT by eyeamok (destruction of government records.)
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To: chaosagent

“So based on this, how did the US Supreme Court intervene in 2000 election in Florida?”

If you look at what happened you’ll see all they did was tell Florida to obey their own law. Which is what happened. Think of it more as guidance than direction.


29 posted on 08/10/2016 1:51:02 PM PDT by MeganC (JE SUIS CHARLES MARTEL!!!)
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