Not always
But in this case it does
Any lawyer worth their salt would not want their client to testify against him/herself unless their client has immunity or it was part of plea bargain.
In this case, I don’t understand why he doesn’t testify, he can’t have both immunity and the right to refuse to testify
Nobody gets both
Does he have immunity for the federal investigation, and possible federal prosecution, but no immunity for the civil case? Can it work that way?
This is rather curious. Perhaps there are state law crimes involved as well, and he has not been granted immunity for them.