A quick Bible study if you're willing to do so. Context is the key to understanding this passage.
Would Jesus knowingly instruct people to disobey the Law?
Who was Jesus talking to in this passage in John 6?
What do the verses in John 6 prior to this exchange say?
When Jesus asked the disciples in John 6 if they wanted to leave what was their reply?
In Acts, what did the Jerusalem Council note in their letter that the Gentiles were not to do?
Who was in support of this letter?
I’ll answer the first question now, and come back later for the rest if I have a chance. I’ve got work, taxes, etc.
When Jesus made this statement, He had not as yet made reception of Himself in Holy Communion available, the institution of which occuring later at the Last Supper. By the time it *was* available, Jesus had suffered, died, and was ressurected. His fulfilment of the Law and the Prophets of the Old Covenant was perfectly complete, and there was a New Covenant under which there was no law that would prevent the reception of Himself - in fact, quite the opposite held. Therefore, Jesus never asked, instructed or commanded anyone to “disobey the law,” as you put it.
Come to think of it, it’s really quite remarkable how intimate the Catholic faith is.
It wasn’t enough for the second Person of the Blessed Trinity to empty Himself and take the form of a slave for the salvation of mankind, He *continues* to empty Himself to take the form of Bread and Wine so He can physically stay with us on earth, feed us, and become one with each of us.
The Blessed Sacrament is an invention of Love. Just as God invented the union of man and woman within the marital bond so that the two literally become one flesh, similarly, God invented the Holy Eucharist so that Jesus, united with the Father and the Holy Spirit, can remain actually and physically one with His Church, the Bride of Christ, and each individual in it.
There’s an old song still sung in church about the Blessed Sacrament in which a phrase goes, “so far surpassing hope or thought.” We know that with God, all things are possible. What does that mean in this context? Was it possible for God to invent this means of unity with man if He willed to do so, no matter how inconceivable this would be to the mind of man, spiritually unaided?
I gotta go.