[Cboldt]

-- If they're doing so while specifically interpreting the 1952 Law's Sec 301(a)7 to apply it to a case, then they're misquoting the law, aren't they? --

No. The law says "prior to," and that has a completely clear meaning except to the pedantic.

[2pets]

Oh, please. You know darned well words matter in legal statutes.

You seem to be just playing dumb on purpose.

"prior to" and "at any time prior to" are in fact two very different time designations.