Wrong! The Lord did not always teach in parables, contrary to assertions of some, and in His 46 parables in no place did the Lord name real persons, as He does here with Abraham and Lazarus, while mercifully excluding the name of the 3rd individual.
In addition, parables used known physical realities (pearl, etc,) as corresponding to spiritual realities (the kingdom of God, etc.). But if the Lord was speaking in a parable about a man who died and was in torments, then for the first and only time He would be using science fiction, for according to annihilationists there is no postmortem ongoing conscious torment.
Annihilationists try to force this account as speaking of Lazarus representing the Gentiles, and the rich man as being the Jews, but besides Luke rarely mentioning Jews, l (not simply the Pharisees) like John does, being in torments commencing at death hardly represents annihilation or anything the Jews realize apart from Christ.
In addition, Abraham's Bosom was not Heaven, but Scripture speaks of Christ setting free the elect who died before Him so to be with Him in paradise, the third heaven, after His death, thus OT saints appearing to many, since the blood of animals could not take away sin, and the way into the holy of holies in Heaven.
Meanwhile, Scripture speaks of Hell delivering up the dead which were in them for the final judgment.
When addressing the masses, he only spoke in parables.
Matthew 13:34: Jesus spoke all these things to the crowd in parables; he did not say anything to them without using a parable.
Mark 4:34: He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when he was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything.
The story of Lazarus and the rich man was told to the masses. It was a parable.It is not the only parable in the Bible that used "real" names.