Correct me if I'm wrong but we're discussing Kentucky and not Tennessee. So can you answer whether divorce was allowed in Kentucky prior to the Obergfell decision?
Wrong. In order to enter into a "marriage" there must be a working statutory definition of marriage (section 420.005)
I believe that just about all 50 states have laws which define marriage along the lines of Kentucky. Are you saying that since Obergfell just about nobody in the country has been able to be married since almost none of the states now have a definition?
Yes.