The relevant portion of the majority opinion states:
“the State laws challenged by Petitioners in these cases are now held invalid to the extent they exclude same-sex couples from civil marriage on the same terms and conditions as opposite-sex couples.”
Any portion of the statute not held invalid is still in force.
Why should age be any limitation? Why should there be any consanguineous limitations?
Kennedy, Ginsburg, Breyer, Sotomayor, and Kagan acted as legislators, an act infinitely beyond the authority of the Court.
Thank you