To: veracious
The courts have authority in this. Why? Contract law. If you have a written contract that allows X to fine Y, but does not allow X to suspend Y, then doing the latter is a breach of contract. It then becomes a legal matter.
43 posted on
09/03/2015 10:47:10 AM PDT by
Mr Rogers
(Can you remember what America was like in 2004?)
To: Mr Rogers; discostu
I understand what your saying and it does have some merit. However, the contracts are with a corporation, which defines the rules the contractees operate under. The rules (of this domain) include process for redress of grievances. It seems a violation of contract for an contractee to use an outside party to change something which is purely defined and owned by the domain.
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