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To: semimojo

I’m giving you an example. A US citizen overseas must file tax reports with the IRS. A Mexican who was in the US illegally has no requirement to file with the US IRS.

Why the difference? Answer: because the US citizen is ‘subject to the jurisdiction’ of the US government.

The illegal Mexican is not.


165 posted on 08/19/2015 6:44:48 AM PDT by xzins (Don't let others pay your share; reject Freep-a-Fare! Donate-https://secure.freerepublic.com/donate/)
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To: xzins
I’m giving you an example. A US citizen overseas must file tax reports with the IRS. A Mexican who was in the US illegally has no requirement to file with the US IRS.

If congress has made such a law, fine (although I'm not sure that's the case). My point is that our laws are enforced on citizens and non-citizens alike. There may be differences in the laws, but both categories are fully subject to the relevant law.

170 posted on 08/19/2015 7:09:10 AM PDT by semimojo
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