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To: BlueDragon

“...If the RCC was in error previous to Vatican II, then there goes infallibility for ‘ex cathedra’ right out the door. If in error since Vatican II, then good-bye all the same to infallibility, even when squeezed & very tightly limited...”

Ah, and therein lies your error. The Church cannot err.

She never has and never will. The Holy Ghost protects her continually from error. Those who apostatize and contradict the Church, such as the below-mentioned “popes”, in spite of relinquishing titles ill-bestowed, or which linger in the minds of many, are no longer Catholic so how can they be clerics?

Thus it is that those infamous people (”John XXIII”, “Paul VI”, and those following AND don’t forget all the bishops, cardinals and theologians who supported the protestantization of the Church) are, like the protestants, heretics, and outside of the Church. So infallibility stands, while those who designed and profess the “new church” are heretics, and no longer (or never were) Catholic.

Thus, Bishop Chekada is correct and what contradiction then exists? For the Church was NOT in error prior to Vatican II.

Thus you must understand that for 50 years we haven’t had a valid pope and only those faithful to the unchanging doctrines as established by Christ and passed down through apostolic succession are part of the Church.


301 posted on 06/27/2015 8:08:46 PM PDT by Repent and Believe (...prelates must be questioned, even publicly, by their subjects. - Saint Thomas Aquinas)
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To: Repent and Believe

If you can't see the logical contradictions inherent within the above statement, when that is contrasted with what else you've been saying, I doubt more effort on my own part would convince.

Up until Vatican II, that is. As you also remarked;

Yet it is now? If that be true, then the supposition that; those who, in the persons of bishops, cardinals and theologians, formally, officially of the RCC made the not infallible changes which resulted in error being introduced, were "not the church", begs the question;

If the RCC can be usurped from within during the mid-1960's, then where is the same supernatural protection from error which had allegedly protected against that very sort of thing previously?

If illegitimate individuals can gain positions of power and influence within the RCC, and effect change which is enough to make what Christ (allegedly) established be something other than what He is alleged to have established --- why has this type of thing occurred only recently?

What now? Will it be invocation of, and likely misapplication (misapplication for needing to stretch application too far, and too completely) of that word "Modernism"?

If it does stretch to fit (and how it could envelope Ratzinger too, I don't know) ---- do not indiscriminately blame those who you likely think of as "Protestants" without allowing some of that special pleading secret sauce (Christians in name only) be applied to whatever "Modernisits" there may have been within "Protestant" fold, most particularly if those (of the 19th century most in particular) were theologians and divines who simultaneously held conservative positions within their own ecclesiastical organization rather than be "modernist intellectual" sorts who could honestly enough be guilty of the sort of charges leveled at #2, #7, #8, #9 here while at #6 I'd like to travel back in time and give the guy a swift kick in the seat of the pants for the citations from Vatican I which as he presented them polarize teaching conducted by ordinary means against necessary revelation from God (one simply must be born from above/born again John 3:5), for without illumination & confirmation from above as Peter himself received as in Matthew 16:18 --- then the church (1 Peter 2:5-9 Revelation 2:17 has no living stones among it, leaving things of God to be taught by rote and dictat; resulting in a soulless church.

Genesis 2:7;

And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.

I don't have time and energy to go over all the rest of the sedacavantist's hero's major work, but he's no prophet in comparison to one particular 17th century Anglican poet (not himself a prelate of the Church of England, I take it) which I'll introduce you to in ending portion of this note...

What is it that sedevacantists (usually worked up over Vatican II) really want? Do they even know? Has sense been made out of it yet?

Is it;
Return to ~Latin only~ Liturgy, as if the Latin language itself was holy in and of itself?

A return to times when anyone not submitting to priests of Rome was branded heretic or worse? What about themselves, like right about now? Since Vatican II was official, and if the RCC cannot err, then who was it that erred? Those of the church who were not of the church. Yeah, sure. Blame it on Luther while you're at it?

Not the "real" church, the sedecavantists say, but then where would that church be now?

A more logical set of questions could be; was an inerrant church ever "there" in Rome (alone) in the first place?

And if so, and it could "depart" from infallibility, or else that be usurped, then why only near time of Vatican II, and not at some other time before when there have been changes, additions, errors & mistakes arise?

Is it only now found within those who fancy themselves Remnant, and nowhere else?

Do sedevacantists desire return to past era when shield (of approval) for their own inwards attitudes of extreme bigotry towards others, such as; Lutherans, Anglicans, all those loosely affiliated 'Congregationalists' who don't even refer to themselves that way anymore, could once again be part of church sanctioned belief?

Along with going back to denying any sort of idea that the Orthodox are the "other lung" of the Church, too?

The poet I threatened to introduce you to (if you've not already met)


302 posted on 06/28/2015 3:16:59 AM PDT by BlueDragon (In the land of the blind, the one-eyed man is king)
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