So were the Mayans and Aztecs (in your opinion) worse than Sodom and Gomorrah?
Was ripping out the hearts of possibly hundreds of thousands of people over the centuries by both civilizations worse than Sodom?
If so, then why did no fire fall upon them?
I have often wondered about this. maybe there is no answer as to why.
And if God could warn Joseph about Herod, why didn’t he warn the other parents in the village of Bethlehem? If it was so scripture could be fulfilled, then God, knowing everything, could through divine providence make it so that there would be no massacre of the innocents and thus alter history before it ever happened and thus no need for anyone in the Old Testament to utter this prophecy that it would happen.
For the same reason that someone who is in a plane crash survives when hundreds of others perish or that someone who hits their head with a kitchen cabinet door drops dead from brain trauma. Was the person who survived more holy than those that perished? Was the person who died from hitting their head more evil?
Jesus answers that by saying, no. That is the nature of the world. Ecclesiastes expounds on that by saying that time and chance happen to all men and we do not know the time of our deaths.
I personally believe that Sodom and Gomorrah and the other five cities on the plains were destroyed because they posed a threat to Abraham and his decedents. Just as the people of Israel were led out of Egyptian bondage and given the land that Abraham, Isaac, and Israel claimed before their move to Egypt.
God worked to establish his people in the land he wanted them to have.
And remember that Joseph, Mary and Jesus were living in Nazareth when the men from the east came. Herod had children in Bethlehem slaughtered, but Jesus wasn’t even there at the time. Herod was just an evil man.