The crime was committed on Philippine soil. Why shouldn't their courts try him?
I dunno. I’m thinking along general lines, I guess. If a crime is committed by an activeduty, do we turn them over to the Iraqis? or Somalis? or Liberians? or other locals wherever that troop happens to be deployed in the world? Clearly in this case the perp appears guilty as sin, and the PI has been a longtime ally, but is this setting a precident of any kind, or is it business as usual?