Maybe ADT is not performed by Epic and transactions come through an interface manager that either is not setup correctly or dropped the transaction due to an error.
Perhaps, but that would apply to every patient, not jus this one, no?
My point is I find it questionable to imply your EHR system, workflow, or protocol screwed up for ONE patient presenting with X set of symptoms and Y history.
I doubt the reporter here though could ask the right questions. Probably would go with HIPPA in a print article instead of HIPAA ;-)