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To: Dilbert San Diego; Alamo-Girl; marron; TXnMA; hosepipe
I’ve always heard the only legal remedy is the impeachment process.

I'm no expert on such matters. But it's pretty clear to me that "high crimes and misdemeanors" are political crimes. There is a special provision in the Constitution — Article II, Section 4 — that stipulates that such political crimes are to be tried in the Senate. Not in the federal courts. This process is called "impeachment."

The House must bring the articles of impeachment, as a sort of grand jury; the Senate is where the case is tried. Only the Senate can convict.

So, why on earth does Speaker Boehner seem to be evading the clear Constitutional language here? Rather it seems he is trying to prosecute the President in the federal criminal courts instead of following the constitutional provision for such matters.

The federal courts are not constituted to handle "political crimes." Moreover, it is dubious that Boehner or Congress would be found to have "standing" in this matter under the rules of the federal criminal courts.

I hate to say it, but the GOP seems to like to evade the Constitution as much as liberal Democrats do. At least every now and then.

But I think Boehner is definitely barking up the wrong tree; and I'd like an explanation as to why.

48 posted on 07/06/2014 2:11:36 PM PDT by betty boop (Resistance to tyrants is obedience to God. —Thomas Jefferson)
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To: betty boop

So, why on earth does Speaker Boehner seem to be evading the clear Constitutional language here?


Easy Diversion....


51 posted on 07/06/2014 7:59:46 PM PDT by hosepipe (This propaganda has been edited to include some fully orbed hyperbole..)
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