[Verginius Rufus]

Herodotus, writing about 430 vor unser Zeit, uses the term Palaistinoi of the inhabitants of part of Syria (3.5.2), Between Egypt and Phoenicia. He may be referring to the area inhabited by the Philistines or perhaps to a larger portion of what was later the Palestine Mandate.

That the name was still in use in Herodotus' day (when the Philistines had probably long since assimilated) may indicate that the pre-Persian rulers of the area had used a name based on the name of the Philistines.

Herodotus never uses the form "Peleshet."

Lots of people read Herodotus, not just anti-Semites.

[Stepan12]

Peleshet.... Peleshet. Is that what one sprinkles on chicken to make it redder when cooked?