Posted on 04/24/2014 6:56:00 PM PDT by dontreadthis
It amazes me that the Interstate Commerce Clause can only be selectively enforced. Especially when (in this case) it is explicitly enumerated in the Constitution, not like some “implied rights”.
I was just being sloppy. See ctdonath2 at post 31 below. That is a more accurate representation of my stance.
Be a little less hostile. We are on the same side here.
How about a novel approach? Why not just honor “shall not be infringed” at all levels?
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