Why doesn't Article IV, Section 3 make Article I, Section 8 meaningless?
Aaaaah - so you WERE meaning to cause a fight. You also are guilty of the very thing you complained of earlier. That is NOT what was meant by the post - AND YOU KNOW IT!
Are you shilling for BLM. USFS, Harry Reid or all of the above?
Why doesn’t Article IV, Section 3 make Article I, Section 8 meaningless?******
Because they don’t conflict.
The properties which Art 4, Sec 3 refers to as fedgov owned can only be owned by the feds in accordance with the enclave clause. Said properties can only be owned by the feds for those specifically enumerated purposes stated in Art I, Sec 8 which have been stated on this forum ad nauseum.
Once those requirements are met then Art 4, Sec 3 is applicable.
Its not meaningless, they have to be read in conjunction with each other and as always the specific overrides the general.
Nonetheless, the enclave clause as you can see does more then the District - it tells what is allowed and how to obtain it from within the States.