The Constitution outlines the purpose of the Federal Government and this is a good explanation:
http://www.fee.org/the_freeman/detail/private-property-and-government-under-the-constitution
Quote from body of writings:
‘The Founding Fathers upheld the economic view of property. They believed that private property ownership, as defined under common law, pre-existed government. The state and federal governments were the mere contractual agents of the people, not sovereign lords over them.
All rights, not specifically delegated to the government, remained with the people–including the common-law provisions of private property.’ the end of quote.
The Federal Government purchased lands with taxpayer money are actually owned by taxpayers, and should be public property, because the Feds are only property managers not owners according to the Framers of the Constitution, imho.
Of course, the control freaks would disagree. Leftist Judges would disagree...however, the intent and known statements of our founders are clear.
Okay, but there were lands considered public and owned by the federal government at the time of the constitution.
So are you claiming that these lands actually belonged to the Bundy’s and not the government? And if so, on what basis?
Okay, but there were lands considered public and owned by the federal government at the time of the constitution.
So are you claiming that these lands actually belonged to the Bundy’s and not the government? And if so, on what basis?