Perhaps in your mind the Scriptures are clear on which view "it holds". The fact of the matter is that the term "day" is used at least four different ways in the OT. There are only approx. 3000 Hebrew words used in the entire OT and there are about 1.25 million English words available to translate to. Thus, we don't actually know what Moses intended (or God directed, we should say) when he penned the end of the "first day". Before we take on Ussher's 4Pm on Oct. 12 (or whatever) kooky timing, we ought to consider how disparate the possible answers might really be.
What part of, “there was evening and there was morning, the first day,” is ambiguous about the clear meaning of scripture?