Do I understand this correctly?
To the question: “How does gay marriage hurt marriage?” the libertarian answer is: “The marriage contract has already been defined for millions, and this is a change that injures that contract”.
That is similar to Perkins’ answer, but his took the cultural route, “the ideology for generations of the vast majority.”
Libertarians go with contract law. If they had to address “how” it injured the previous contracts, what would they list?
Any time you radically change a contract AFTER millions have already entered it, it is damaging to all who entered it under the previous assumptions.
You buy a Cadillac - and three years later, all Cadillacs are defined down to mean just any GM model. Your “caddy” is devalued post facto