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To: 2ndDivisionVet; All
...it was "always wrong to kill someone" according to his Roman Catholic faith,...i

I'm not a translator and don't know the Hebrew language. So can anybody explain why English Roman Catholic Bible versions used the kill sense of Hebrew word (ratsach) in 5th Commandment when other senses of that Hebrew word clearly indicate murder?

4 posted on 07/02/2013 5:05:29 PM PDT by Amendment10
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To: Amendment10
The King James Bible has "Thou shalt not kill" (Exodus 20.13; Deuteronomy 5.17). That is a Protestant translation.

The Septuagint renders the Hebrew with ou phoneuseis--(phoneuo is translated as "murder," "kill," "slay").

20 posted on 07/02/2013 6:41:48 PM PDT by Verginius Rufus
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To: Amendment10
The KJB used 'kill' for the 5th commandment.

It was used to cover more then murder.

33 posted on 07/03/2013 12:13:26 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (Pr 14:34 Righteousness exalteth a nation:but sin is a reproach to any people)
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