OK. Let’s leave aside the question of whether war was ever declared on any state, that’s a bit of a technicality.
Virginia waged war on the United States starting on April 16/17 (moving to attack before the final secession vote at the convention, BTW), attacking Union forces at Harper’s Ferry and Norfolk. All this was before the referendum on May 23 that “officially” took Virginia out of the Union. IOW, the State of Virginia attacked Union troops while it was (even by its own theory of secession) still legally a part of the Union.
With the “official” secession vote the State then joined the Confederacy, which had already legally (by its own lights) and officially declared war on the USA. By so doing VA of course was itself declaring war on the US.
The Union first moved troops into Virginia the on May 24, the day after VA officially joined the war against the USA.
So my question is on what basis do you claim Virginia was a “loyal state” on which the USA waged (we won’t quibble about “declared”) war? If waging war on the US and joining a confederacy that officially is at war with the US constitutes being a “loyal state,” what would a state have to do to be “disloyal” in your book?
I wonder how King George III would have answered that question.
“Virginia waged war on the United States starting on April 16/17 (moving to attack before the final secession vote at the convention, BTW), attacking Union forces at Harper’s Ferry and Norfolk.”
Last I checked Norfolk and Harper’s Ferry both resided in the state of Virginia.
Did Virginia invade the North? No. Did Lincoln invade the South? Yes. Virginia had every right as a state to defend herself from Federal incursion.