[Dead Corpse]

Wrong. Art 6 Para 2 clearly states, “laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding”.

Ie; “Shall not be infringed” applies to them as well via the Supremacy clause.

Heller decision by the SCOTUS bears this out.

[Tublecane]

Wrong. That’s not how the supremacy clause works. Why do you think, for instance, states were allowed to have official churches despite the 1st amendment? Because the federal Constitution, in addition to forbidding the states some powers, applies mainly to the central government. That is the body which shall not infringe upon the right to keep and bear arms.

Should the people have wushed the states ordered not to do the same, that’s what state constitutions are for. It wasn’t until the 14th amendment and the incorporation doctrine that the 2nd amendment applied to state law.

[muawiyah]

You are currently correct but as of 1783 the states were sovereign nations so whatever the Articles or the Constitution said about them necessarily followed in the wake of that sovereignty ~ ergo, slavery would continue to exist in the states and the federal government was clearly edged out of any part of it beyond prohibiting importation of more slaves after a date certain.

Enormous efforts were made in writing the Constituion and the Bill of Rights to AVOID any conflict with slavery ~ else, neither would have been accepted, and you'd need a passport to hit the links in Hilton Head!

Even after the Union Victory, slavery was left alone until passage of the 13th Amendment ~