I always wondered, did they give a reason, or did it just poof away (pun intended)? Either they were wrong then or they’re wrong now. Have they said which?
Not that there are standards for what’s a disorder and what’s not. Everyone, or nearly so, wants to have sex occasionally. What makes for nymphomania or satyriasis? I think they say it comes down to whether or not it adversely affects your life. So if gayness suddenly becomes socially acceptable I guess it stops adversely affecting your life, and isn’t a disorder.
What kinda science is this?
It got lobbied out.