They are different issues. Prohibition of harm to another, is very different than prohibition of possession and ownership of a thing for an individual. Do you have the intelligence to understand that?
For example, John Lott has conclusively proved that prohibiting firearms ownership increases firearms crime and other violent crime, all over the world. In this case, prohibition has an opposite effect of what's intended.
I know that. Are you attempting to infer that drug prohibition increases drug crime and other violent crimes all over the world?