True. And very few people realize how routinely what we now consider "constitutional rights" were violated by the states in pre-civil war days.
However, the 14th Amendment has been interpreted to mean that most if not all of the Bill of Rights now applies to state and local governments.
It's doubtful those who wrote 14A intended that application, but that's how SCOTUS has interpreted it.
The clearest explanation of the 14th Amendment and the Privileges or Immunities Clause is Clarence Thomas’s dissent in Saenz v Roe (1999). Short answer - the 14th was intended to apply the BOR to the states. See - http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/98-97.ZD1.html